In a section of I Corinthians in which Paul was discussing questions that
the Corinthians saints had regarding marriage, he wrote, “But if any man think that he behaveth
himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need
so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.
Nevertheless he that standeth stedfast in his heart, having no necessity, but
hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will
keep his virgin, doeth well. So then he
that giveth her in marriage doeth well; but he that giveth her not in marriage
doeth better.” (1 Cor. 7:36-38.) I have
been requested to give my explanation of it.
Previous to this passage, Paul had
discussed: the duties of husbands and
wives to each other (7:2-5); the advisability of remaining single as he, if
possible (7:6-9); instructions to the married (7:10-11); instructions to a believer married to an unbeliever
(7:12-16); abiding in one’s calling,
which is not morally wrong (7:17-24);
and his judgment to virgins to remain such because of the present
distress, but that if they marry, they do not sin, though difficulties may
arise due to the persecution (7:25-35)
In that land and time, marriages were
often arranged by the parents, or the head of the household. Abraham sent his servant to find a wife for
Isaac, his son. When the servant arrived
at the city of Nahor, Laban and Bethuel told the servant to take Rebekah and go
(Gen. 24:50). Perhaps, Bethuel, her
father, was up in years and Laban, her brother, was becoming the head of the
family. Later, Laban gives both Leah and
Rachel to Jacob (Gen. 29). A. T.
Robertson says, “Roman and Greek fathers had the control of the marriage of
their daughters. ‘My marriage is my father's care; it is not for me to decide
about that’ (Hermione in Euripides' Andromache, 987).” (from Robertson's Word Pictures in the New
Testament, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft &
Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament. Copyright (c) 1985 by Broadman
Press).
The understanding of the verse
is made clear in light of the verses 37 and 38.
The “any man” in verse 36 refers to the father of the virgin daughter,
because he is the one who “will keep [guard or protect] his virgin” daughter (vs. 37); and it is the
father of the virgin daughter who “giveth her in marriage” or “giveth her not
in marriage.” (vs. 38).
What does “he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin” mean? Thayer says the meaning contextually is to
“prepare disgrace for her.” Macknight
says, “As both Jews and Greeks reckoned celibacy dishonourable, some fathers might
think it sinful to restrain their daughters from marriage. So, if it were contrary to social mores by
not allowing his virgin daughter to marry, and she would be past prime for
marriage, he could relent and allow her to marry. The expression “pass the
flower of her age” used here is found only once in the New Testament. It means beyond the acme or bloom of life.
Observe, too, the change in pronouns.
The text says, “let them marry.”
The text does not say, “let him marry.”
I want to quote for you the rendering of this passage from the English
Standard Bible with which some seemed to be enamored. It reads:
If anyone thinks that he is not behaving
properly toward his betrothed, if his passions are strong, and it has to be,
let him do as he wishes: let them
marry—it is no sin. But whoever is
firmly established in his heart, being under no necessity but having his desire
under control, and has determined this in his heart, to keep her as his
betrothed, he will do well. So then he
who marries his betrothed does well, and he who refrains from marriage will do
even better.
Here, as in the Revised Standard Version, the translators rendered
the Greek word (parqevnos) for “virgin” as “betrothed,” which is wrong. The word is correctly translated “virgin,” as
in the King James Version, New King James Version and the American
Standard Version. The same word is used in Matthew 1:23.
Verse
thirty-eight in the KJV uses the
expressions “he that giveth her in marriage” and “he that giveth her
not in marriage.” These are correctly translated from the Greek; the “her”
being in italics to show that it is not in the original, but placed there by
the translators to help with the understanding.
However, the ESV is not correct, for it refers to “he who marries
his betrothed.” There is as much difference between these two renderings as
there is between the father of the bride and the husband to be.
If this passage refers to the one who may
marry the virgin, rather than the father who gives her away, then if he chooses
not to marry her, how can she be called his “betrothed”? Brother Guy N. Woods to this point wrote:
If the boy has determined to remain single all of his life, in what sense
can he continue to designate her as “his virgin,” or, as the RSV has it, “his
betrothed?” Are we to assume that Paul
is teaching here that the boy can decide that he will never marry, and in the
same decision sentence his girl friend to spinsterhood, the rest of her
days, with the sanction of inspiration?
These translations give the man the privilege of celibacy, and at the
same time, put him in position to deny to the girl of the passage the right of
ever marrying anybody else. How could
any person in his right mind conclude that such was the apostle’s intent
here? Yet this conclusion follows from
the renderings given, and aside from other considerations, is obviously
false. (Questions and Answers Open
Forum, p. 99.)
Hear the American Standard Version on this
passage: “ But if any man thinketh that he behaveth himself unseemingly toward
his virgin (daughter), if she be past the flower of her age, and if need so
requireth, let him do what he will; he sinneth not; let them marry. But he that standeth stedfast in his heart,
having no necessity, but hath power as touching in his own heart, to keep his
own virgin (daughter), shall do well. So then both he that giveth his own
virgin (daughter) in marriage doeth well; and he that giveth her not in
marriage shall do better.” (1 Cor. 7:36-38.)
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